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Euclid's theorem on prime numbers


Continuing with our story about prime numbers, today we will prove that there exists an infinite number of primes. This is called the Euclid's theorem on prime numbers. This theorem has a very simple proof but it is probably one of the most beautiful proofs ever in mathematics.



To prove that there are infinitely many prime numbers, we will show that for any sequence of prime numbers p_1, p_2, ..., p_k, we can find another prime number that is not in this list.

What we do is we construct this number: n = p_1 p_2 \dots p_k + 1.

Now, clearly, n must have a prime divisor. But since n is not divisible by any of the prime numbers p_i, the prime divisor of n must be a new prime number that is not in the above list of primes.

So, for any finite sequence of prime numbers, we can find another prime number. This proves that there must be an infinite number of primes.

This proof is so simple, yet, it is so beautiful! Let us use this technique to solve some similar problems.


Problem 1. Prove that there are infinitely many prime numbers of the form 4N+3.




We know that 2 is the only even prime number, all other primes are odd numbers. An odd prime number is either of the form 4N+1, or of the form 4N+3. To prove that there exists an infinite number of primes of the form 4N+3, we will use a similar argument as above. That is, for any sequence of prime numbers p_1, p_2, ..., p_k of the form 4N+3, we will show that there exists another prime number of the form 4N+3 that is not in the list.

We choose n = 4 p_1 p_2 \dots p_k - 1.

This number n must have a prime divisor of the form 4N+3. Why it that? The reason is, because n is an odd number greater than 1, if n does not have any prime divisor of the form 4N+3 then all prime divisors of n must be of the form 4N+1. Thus, n is a product of numbers of the form 4N+1. It is easy to see that a product of numbers of the form 4N+1 is a number of the form 4N+1. Therefore,  n is a number of the form 4N+1, and this is a contradiction.

We have shown that n must have a prime divisor p which is of the form 4N+3. Next, since n is not divisible by any of the prime numbers p_i, we conclude that p \neq p_i. Let us now write down the proof.




Solution to the Problem 1. To prove that there exists infinitely many prime numbers of the form 4N+3, we show that for any sequence of prime numbers p_1, p_2, ..., p_k of the form 4N+3, there exists another prime number which is also of the form 4N+3.

Indeed, take n = 4 p_1 p_2 \dots p_k - 1.

We claim that n must have a prime divisor of the form 4N+3. This is because if all prime divisors of n are of the form 4N+1 then as a product of numbers of the form 4N+1, n must also be of the form 4N+1, which is a contradiction.

So, n must have a prime divisor p which is of the form 4N+3. Since n is not divisible by any of the prime numbers p_i, we must have p \neq p_i.

Thus, for any finite sequence of prime numbers of the form 4N+3, we can find another prime number which is also of the form 4N+3, so there must be an infinite number of primes of the form 4N+3. \blacksquare





Problem 2.  Prove that there are infinitely many prime numbers of the form 4N+1.


To follow the above argument we would choose n = 4 p_1 p_2 \dots p_k + 1 and try to prove that n has a prime divisor of the form 4N+1. However, a closer look tells us that this is not achievable. The reason is that a product of two numbers of the form 4N+3 is a number of the form 4N+1. Therefore, n could be a product of two prime numbers of the form 4N+3 and it will make n a number of the form 4N+1, but yet, n will not have any prime divisors of the form 4N+1. We need to find another proof.

We will use n = 4 p_1^2 p_2^2 \dots p_k^2 + 1. To show that n has a prime divisor of the form 4N+1, we use the following useful fact.



Lemma. For any x, the number x^2 + 1 has no prime divisors of the form 4N+3.


To prove this lemma, we need to use the Fermat's little theorem. You can read more about the Fermat's little theorem in this post "modulo - Part 5".

The Fermat's little theorem asserts that, for any prime number p, and for any integer a that is not divisible by p, a^{p-1} = 1 \pmod{p}.


We prove the lemma by contradiction. First, we assume that x^2+1 has a prime divisor p=4N+3. Thus obtaining x^2 = -1 \pmod{p}. It follows that x^{4N+2} = (x^2)^{2N+1} = (-1)^{2N+1} = -1 \pmod{p}.

However, by Fermat's little theorem, we have x^{4N+2} = 1 \pmod{p}.

So 1=-1 \pmod{p}, or equivalently, 2=0 \pmod{p}. This is a contradiction, so the lemma is proved. \blacksquare





Solution to the Problem 2. To prove that there exists infinitely many prime numbers of the form 4N+1, we show that for any sequence of prime numbers p_1, p_2, ..., p_k of the form 4N+1, there exists another prime number of the form 4N+1 which is not in the list.

Indeed, take n = 4 p_1^2 p_2^2 \dots p_k^2 + 1.

This number n is of the form x^2+1. By the lemma that we have just proved, n does not have any prime divisor of the form 4N+3. Since n is an odd number, all prime divisors of n must be of the form 4N+1. We also easily see that none of the prime numbers p_i in the list is a divisor of n. Thus, we have found new prime numbers of the form 4N+1.

We have shown that for any finite sequence of prime numbers of the form 4N+1, we can find other prime numbers of the form 4N+1, therefore, there must exist an infinite number of primes of the form 4N+1\blacksquare


Before we stop, let us just remark that the above two problems are actually two special cases of a general theorem. This is called the Dirichlet's theorem on arithmetic progressions. The Dirichlet's theorem asserts that for any two coprime numbers a and b, there exists an infinite number of primes of the form aN+b.


Let us stop here for now. See you again in the next post.



Homework.

1. Prove that there are infinitely many prime numbers of the form 6N+1.

2. Prove that there are infinitely many prime numbers of the form 6N+5.

3. Choose some other values of a and b, and prove that there exists an infinite number of primes of the form aN+b.